When you say that the capitalist steals from the worker by appropriating part of the value that the worker produced, aren't you neglecting the fact that the worker is producing using equipment that belongs to the capitalist? In effect the capitalist is renting out the equipment (the means of production I guess) to the worker. What is outrageous of course is the rent that he charges for it, but still I don't think it should be zero, the way you are suggesting. Thanks a lot.
Question about your explanation of surplus
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